Vulgar vs. Dialect vs. Vernacular
This short article is written for the purpose of bringing some clarity concerning the word “vulgar”, and how it differs from “dialect”, and even “vernacular”. When reading documents such as the Preface to the 1611 King James Bible, we see the word “vulgar”, meaning, “common”. Specifically, when used in such documents, it is referring to the common language spoken by particular people, such as Hebrew, Greek, German, and of course, English. In the 1600’s (when the Preface was written), the vast majority of people were illiterate. Yes, that means, that although they could speak the vulgar tongue (English), they could not read it. Only the educated people of that era could read. When “English” was taught then, it was taught as it is now. The “English” language isn’t taught differently in North Carolina, or Nebraska, any differently than it is taught in Pennsylvania, or Kentucky.
The vulgar (common) language is English, all across America. Now the ole folks of Texas may speak a different dialect, and possibly even a different vernacular. Anyone who has done any traveling knows that people in different regions of the country speak differently. While most people in America speak the same “vulgar” language, “English”; they often speak a different dialect of the English language. Having traveled all over America, I have found that even different regions have differing “vernaculars”. To put it simply, the common (or vulgar) language in America, is English; but different regions have particular “dialects”. Then, depending on particular groups, (such as people in certain vocations, or some other common issue), they have a “vernacular” that is distinctive of that particular group. (Sailors and preachers usually have different “vernaculars”.)
Keeping the above in mind, each of the English Bibles prior to the KJ all had the same basic “vulgar” language. There wasn’t one English for eastern England, and another English for western England. English is English. How does this relate to God preserving His words? It is for this reason that we must ask, why God gave mankind His words to begin with? He has a message for us. God obviously chose to give the Old Testament in Hebrew; but then, He chose to give the New Testament in Greek. Is God limited to using particular languages? Didn’t the New Testament writers quote the Old Testament?
Even modern day scholarship (such as James White states plainly that God has preserved His words within the manuscript tradition, (the totality of all biblical manuscripts, which amount to over 24,000 manuscripts).
The proper KJVO position is that the KJ is the only inspired, preserved, and inerrant Word of God for English speaking people; not that the KJ is the “only” word of God today.
The KJB is God’s inspired, preserved, and inerrant Word of God for English speaking people. The common (vulgar) language of America, and quite a bit of the rest of the world, is English. When English is taught, it is taught (in most cases for standardization), as proper English, following the normal rules of grammar. Using the word “vulgar”; but insinuating the word “vernacular”, is not a proper representation of translating into English; but, what modern scholarship tries to do, is to assert that the meaning of “dialect”, or even “vernacular” is equivalent to the meaning of “vulgar”. Modern scholarship therefore has the burden of proof to show that the common use of the generally taught English, is not the “common” English used by not only the vast majority of English speaking people in America, but around the entire world.
People that learn “English” do not learn a particular “dialect” for a specific region of the world; rather, they learn the common (vulgar) language that is used worldwide. No change of the “dialect” for a particular subset of “English speaking people” will accomplish a better understanding or readability of English overall, for ALL English speaking people.
Modern scholarship also wants to assert that the English language has changed so much between the 1600’s and our current day, that a complete revision of the English needs to occur. Unfortunately for modern scholarship, the overwhelming vast majority of all the words in ALL English Bibles are the same. How is it that people who exclusively use the King James Bible can still understand all the words of Scripture, that modern scholarship says cannot be understood, because the words are problematic for one reason or another? The answer is very simple; 1) they are the correct words; and 2) the Holy Spirit gives understanding to His words. We do not need multiple “versions” of God’s Word (which supposedly make the readability of the Bible better); we need the words that God gave us, and then study those words in the power of the Holy Spirit.
Remember this key point, modern scholarship stresses the fact that words must be simple in order for man to understand them. Teachers and preachers that use exclusively the King James, believe that they must rely on the Holy Spirit to give them understanding of the Scriptures.
Think about it.
